A -year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Two weeks ago, she was evaluated for fatigue and was found to have a hemoglobin concentration of , a mean corpuscular volume of , and a serum ferritin level of . At that time, she was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia secondary to heavy menstrual bleeding and was instructed to start oral ferrous sulfate. Today, the patient reports that she has been taking the medication consistently. She still feels somewhat tired but denies shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory results today show a hemoglobin concentration of and a reticulocyte count of (normal: ). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ASwitch to an intravenous iron formulation
- Continue current therapy and schedule a follow-up in 4 weeksCevap
- CPrescribe oral omeprazole to prevent gastrointestinal irritation
- DOrder a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
- EAdmit the patient for a packed red blood cell transfusion