A 54-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe right groin pain that began 8 hours ago. He has a known right inguinal hernia that he usually pushes back in manually, but he has been unable to do so today. He reports nausea and two episodes of bilious emesis. Temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination reveals a 6-cm bulge in the right inguinal region that is exquisitely tender to palpation, erythematous, and warm to the touch. The overlying skin is tense, and bowel sounds are absent over the mass. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent surgical explorationCevap
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CManual reduction under procedural sedation
- DBedside ultrasonography of the inguinal region
- EDischarge with a supportive truss and an urgent surgery clinic appointment