A 64-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for severe dizziness and a rapidly spreading rash. Thirty minutes ago, she was given a dose of intravenous ampicillin-sulbactam for a suspected soft tissue infection of her forearm. Shortly after the infusion, she developed diffuse pruritus, a sensation of throat fullness, and profound lightheadedness. Her past medical history is significant for essential hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, open-angle glaucoma, and migraine headaches. Her daily medications include lisinopril, topical timolol ophthalmic drops, and as-needed sumatriptan.
On arrival, her blood pressure is 65/38 mmHg, heart rate is 46/min, respiratory rate is 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical examination reveals an agitated and flushed woman with diffuse urticaria over her trunk and extremities. Lung auscultation reveals mild, scattered expiratory wheezes bilaterally with good air movement. There is no stridor, and her oropharynx is clear without visible angioedema.
Nursing staff immediately place two large-bore intravenous lines and initiate a rapid infusion of normal saline. The physician promptly administers 0.5 mg of intramuscular epinephrine into the anterolateral thigh. Five minutes later, the patient's blood pressure is 60/35 mmHg and her heart rate is 44/min. A second dose of intramuscular epinephrine is administered, but her hemodynamic status remains unimproved after another five minutes.
Which of the following is the single most urgent initial step in the ongoing stabilization of this patient?
- Intravenous administration of glucagonCevap
- BEndotracheal intubation with rapid sequence induction
- CIntravenous administration of hydrocortisone and diphenhydramine
- DIntravenous administration of milrinone
- EIntravenous administration of atropine sulfate