A 72-year-old man with a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis is brought to the emergency department due to progressive swelling and severe pain in his right thigh over the past 48 hours. He denies any recent trauma, surgery, or changes to his medications. His current medications include methotrexate and prednisone. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 105/65 mm Hg and a heart rate of 112/min. Physical examination reveals a massive, tense, ecchymotic swelling extending from the right groin to the knee. Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | 7.2 g/dL | 13.5-17.5 g/dL |
| Platelet count | 210,000/mm³ | 150,000-400,000/mm³ |
| Prothrombin time (PT) | 12 sec | 11-15 sec |
| Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) | 94 sec | 25-40 sec |
A mixing study is performed using a 1:1 mixture of the patient's plasma and normal pooled plasma. Immediately after mixing, the aPTT is 34 seconds. After incubating the mixture at for 2 hours, the aPTT is 82 seconds.
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of the most appropriate immediate hemostatic pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Complexing with exposed tissue factor to independently catalyze the conversion of factor X to factor XaCevap
- BDirect replacement of the deficient glycoprotein to competitively overcome autoantibody neutralization
- CStimulation of endothelial Weibel-Palade bodies to release stored endogenous coagulation factors
- DBispecific bridging of activated factor IX and factor X to restore the intrinsic tenase complex
- EProvision of a concentrated cryoprecipitate containing high levels of fibrinogen and factor VIII