A 52-year-old man is evaluated for treatment-resistant hypertension. His current blood pressure is despite adherence to amlodipine, lisinopril, and chlorthalidone. Laboratory studies obtained two weeks ago showed:
- Serum sodium:
- Serum potassium:
- Plasma aldosterone concentration: (Normal: )
- Plasma renin activity: (Normal: )
A dedicated adrenal protocol computed tomography (CT) scan demonstrates a lipid-rich nodule in the right adrenal gland. The left adrenal gland appears normal.
To guide further management, an adrenal venous sampling (AVS) procedure is performed with continuous cosyntropin (ACTH) infusion. The laboratory results from the procedure are shown in the table below:
| Cannulation Site | Aldosterone () | Cortisol () |
|---|---|---|
| Peripheral vein (IVC) | ||
| Right adrenal vein | ||
| Left adrenal vein |
Based on these laboratory findings, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of this patient's underlying condition?
- Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasiaCevap
- BRight-sided aldosterone-producing adenoma
- CLeft-sided aldosterone-producing adenoma
- DUnsuccessful right adrenal vein cannulation
- EAdrenocorticotropic hormone-dependent hypercortisolism