Paramedics arrive at the emergency department with a -year-old gentleman who experienced a sudden syncopal episode at his residence. Upon regaining consciousness in transit, he complained of excruciating, tearing pain radiating from his mid-abdomen to his lower back. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, tobacco use disorder, and a -cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm identified on ultrasound months ago. Upon arrival, he is lethargic, pale, and profoundly diaphoretic. Vital signs show a temperature of (), heart rate of /min, respiratory rate of /min, and blood pressure of mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary auscultation is unremarkable. Abdominal examination reveals a tender, pulsatile midline mass. Both lower extremities are cool with barely palpable dorsalis pedis pulses. Intravenous access is secured with two large-bore catheters, and uncrossmatched blood transfusion is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AObtain a computed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BAdminister intravenous esmolol to tightly control heart rate and blood pressure
- CAdmit to the medical intensive care unit for permissive hypotension and serial hemoglobin monitoring
- Expedite transfer to the operating room for immediate surgical exploration and repairCevap
- EPerform a diagnostic peritoneal lavage to confirm the presence of intraperitoneal hemorrhage