A -year-old man is evaluated for resistant hypertension. His blood pressure is mmHg despite adherence to maximum tolerated doses of amlodipine, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Laboratory studies reveal a serum potassium level of mEq/L. The patient is transitioned to doxazosin and verapamil to stabilize his blood pressure without interfering with hormonal testing. Four weeks later, his plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio is ng/dL per ng/(mL h) (normal ). An intravenous saline infusion suppression test demonstrates a post-infusion plasma aldosterone concentration of ng/dL (normal ng/dL), confirming primary aldosteronism. A dedicated adrenal-protocol computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a -cm hypodense nodule in the left adrenal gland and a normal-appearing right adrenal gland. The patient is otherwise healthy and expresses a strong preference for definitive surgical management if feasible. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- ALeft laparoscopic adrenalectomy
- BMagnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen
- CInitiation of spironolactone therapy
- Adrenal venous samplingCevap
- ERepeat plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio