A 68-year-old man is hospitalized for induction chemotherapy to treat acute myeloid leukemia and subsequently develops severe neutropenia. During his second week of hospitalization, he experiences a fever spike of 39.2°C (102.6°F) and is found to have a central line-associated bloodstream infection. Empiric therapy with cefepime and vancomycin is initiated. Two days later, blood cultures grow *Enterococcus faecium*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals that the isolate is resistant to ampicillin and vancomycin but susceptible to daptomycin and linezolid. The infectious disease service is consulted, and his antibiotic regimen is modified appropriately. Which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism underlying this organism's resistance to the glycopeptide antibiotic used in his initial empiric regimen?
- Replacement of the terminal D-alanine with D-lactate in cell wall precursorsCevap
- BExpression of a mutated penicillin-binding protein with low drug affinity
- CEnzymatic adenylation of the antibiotic molecule
- DMethylation of the 23S rRNA binding site on the 50S ribosomal subunit
- EIncreased expression of transmembrane drug efflux pumps