A 62-year-old woman is evaluated on the inpatient medical ward for sudden clinical deterioration. She was admitted 4 days ago for a complicated urinary tract infection presenting with fever, right-sided flank pain, and dysuria. Initial urine cultures grew lactose-fermenting, indole-negative Gram-negative rods. Susceptibility testing demonstrated that the isolate was susceptible to ceftriaxone, cefepime, ciprofloxacin, and meropenem. She was started on intravenous ceftriaxone and initially showed clinical improvement, becoming afebrile by day 2. Today, she has developed recurrent chills and flank pain. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Repeat blood and urine cultures are drawn and subsequently grow the same organism. Susceptibility testing of the new isolate reveals resistance to ceftriaxone, but retained susceptibility to cefepime, ciprofloxacin, and meropenem. Which of the following molecular mechanisms most likely explains this pathogen's acquired resistance to the current antimicrobial therapy?
- Selection of a mutant strain with stably derepressed chromosomal beta-lactamase productionCevap
- BAcquisition of a plasmid encoding an extended-spectrum beta-lactamase enzyme
- CDownregulation of outer membrane porin channels restricting antibiotic entry
- DExpression of an altered penicillin-binding protein with decreased drug affinity
- EUpregulation of energy-dependent efflux pumps actively clearing the antibiotic