A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of severe, colicky abdominal pain and progressive swelling of her upper lip. The symptoms began 3 hours ago, shortly after a minor dental extraction. She has a history of recurrent, unexplained episodes of severe abdominal pain since adolescence, for which she has undergone multiple non-diagnostic evaluations. She has no history of food or drug allergies. Her only medication is a combined oral contraceptive pill. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), heart rate 98/min, blood pressure 118/76 mmHg, and respiratory rate 16/min. Physical examination reveals asymmetric, non-pitting edema of the upper lip and periorbital soft tissue. There is no urticaria, and the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Laboratory testing reveals a markedly decreased C4 level with a normal C3 level. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's acute symptoms?
- AAdministration of an alpha-1, beta-1, and beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist
- Administration of a bradykinin B2 receptor antagonistCevap
- CAdministration of an intravenous histamine H1 receptor antagonist
- DComputed tomography imaging of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- EAdministration of systemic corticosteroids and transition to a daily angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor