An ambulatory care physician conducts a telehealth consultation with a 65-year-old female patient reporting a 48-hour history of spontaneous epistaxis and multiple large bruises on her extremities. Her medical history is notable for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation. To prevent thromboembolism, she has taken rivaroxaban daily for three years without hemorrhagic events. Four days prior to this consultation, she visited an urgent care center for acute bronchitis and was given a prescription for a 10-day course of clarithromycin. The patient denies experiencing headaches, visual disturbances, motor weakness, or dark stools. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the patient's management?
- Advise the patient to stop taking both clarithromycin and rivaroxaban immediatelyCevap
- BPrescribe oral vitamin K to reverse the current anticoagulant effect
- CChange the anticoagulant from rivaroxaban to apixaban while completing the antibiotic course
- DDirect the patient to the emergency department for an immediate non-contrast head computed tomography scan
- ERecommend over-the-counter ibuprofen for discomfort associated with the ecchymoses and continue current medications