A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a 3-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, subjective fevers, and nausea. She has a history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and essential hypertension. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals marked tenderness in the left lower quadrant with voluntary guarding. There is no rebound tenderness or abdominal rigidity. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . Intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics are initiated. A computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast reveals inflammation of the sigmoid colon with an adjacent fluid collection containing gas bubbles and an enhancing rim. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AColonoscopy with decompression
- CT-guided percutaneous drainageCevap
- CDischarge home with a 14-day course of oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- DExploratory laparotomy with sigmoid resection and end colostomy
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen and pelvis