During a routine follow-up appointment, a -year-old female patient reports experiencing profound muscle weakness and frequent nocturia over the past months. She has a -year history of hypertension that remains poorly controlled despite daily adherence to a regimen of lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. Her current blood pressure is , and her heart rate is . Physical examination demonstrates a normal body mass index, no striae or central adiposity, an absence of peripheral edema, and normal deep tendon reflexes.
A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals the following:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Serum sodium | |
| Serum potassium | |
| Serum chloride | |
| Serum bicarbonate | |
| Blood urea nitrogen | |
| Serum creatinine |
To further evaluate the refractory hypertension and electrolyte abnormalities, additional serologic testing is obtained:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Plasma aldosterone concentration | ||
| Plasma renin activity | ||
| Aldosterone-to-renin ratio |
Based on these laboratory findings, which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms is the most accurate interpretation of this patient's condition?
- AThiazide-induced volume contraction and secondary neurohormonal activation
- BReduced renal arterial perfusion stimulating the juxtaglomerular apparatus
- Autonomous adrenal hypersecretion of mineralocorticoidsCevap
- DConstitutive activation of collecting tubule sodium channels
- ERenal microvascular thrombosis impairing local cortical perfusion