A 45-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic reporting a 6-month history of worsening joint pain, generalized fatigue, and excessive sweating. He mentions that he had to have his wedding ring enlarged twice over the past year due to changes in his hands. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, which was diagnosed three months ago. Blood pressure is 152/94 mm Hg, heart rate is 78/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m . Physical examination reveals an enlarged, prominent jaw, macroglossia, and enlarged, doughy hands. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in laboratory evaluation?
- Measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor 1Cevap
- BOral glucose tolerance test with concurrent growth hormone measurement
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland
- DMeasurement of a random serum growth hormone level
- EMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
Cevap
Measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor 1
The patient's clinical features (acral overgrowth, coarse facial features, hyperhidrosis, and new-onset diabetes) strongly suggest acromegaly, which is almost always caused by a growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma. The most appropriate initial step in laboratory evaluation is measuring the serum insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) level. Because growth hormone is secreted in a pulsatile fashion and has a short half-life, random growth hormone levels are unreliable. IGF-1, produced primarily by the liver in response to growth hormone, has a longer half-life and provides a steady, integrated assessment of growth hormone secretion.
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The initial laboratory evaluation for suspected acromegaly is the measurement of serum insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1).
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