A 75-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for sudden-onset right-sided pleuritic chest pain and mild shortness of breath that began 6 hours ago. She has a history of essential hypertension and osteoarthritis. Current medications include lisinopril and acetaminophen. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg, pulse 104/min, and respirations 18/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, chronic right lower extremity edema. The patient is alert, comfortable, and conversing in full sentences. Laboratory evaluation shows a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. High-sensitivity troponin I is undetectable, and N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) is 85 pg/mL (normal: <125 pg/mL). CT pulmonary angiography reveals a segmental pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. Transthoracic echocardiography demonstrates normal right ventricular size and systolic function without evidence of right heart strain. The patient is administered a dose of oral apixaban. Her pain is completely relieved with oral analgesics. She lives with her healthy, supportive daughter 15 minutes away from the hospital and is ambulatory at baseline. Which of the following is the most appropriate disposition for this patient?
- Discharge home with oral anticoagulation and prompt outpatient follow-upCevap
- BAdmit to the general medical ward for initiation of oral anticoagulation and clinical observation
- CAdmit to a telemetry unit for continuous electrocardiographic monitoring
- DAdmit to a medical step-down unit to monitor for impending right ventricular failure
- ETransfer to a skilled nursing facility for supervised administration of oral anticoagulation