A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services after collapsing at home. His wife reports that he complained of a sudden, tearing pain in his abdomen and lower back shortly before losing consciousness. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 50-pack-year smoking history. Upon arrival, he is lethargic, pale, and diaphoretic. Vital signs are temperature (), heart rate 132/min, blood pressure 68/40 mmHg, and respiratory rate 24/min. Physical examination reveals a large, pulsatile midline abdominal mass and cold, mottled lower extremities. Two large-bore peripheral intravenous catheters have been successfully inserted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Activate the massive transfusion protocol and arrange immediate transfer to the operating roomCevap
- BObtain a contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan of the abdomen
- CAdminister intravenous labetalol to reduce shear stress
- DBegin a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine
- EObtain an urgent portable plain radiograph of the abdomen