A -year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for new-onset swelling of his right leg. He is currently on hospital day following a mitral valve replacement and has been receiving subcutaneous unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. On admission, his baseline platelet count was ; today, it is . A lower extremity venous duplex ultrasound reveals an acute deep vein thrombosis in the right femoral vein. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected. All heparin-containing products are immediately discontinued, a continuous intravenous infusion of argatroban is initiated, and a serotonin release assay is sent.
Three days later, the patient's leg swelling has improved. His platelet count has increased to , and his activated partial thromboplastin time has remained consistently in the therapeutic range. The serotonin release assay returns positive. The patient is clinically stable, and the critical care team plans to transition him to oral warfarin for long-term anticoagulation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the monitoring and treatment evaluation of this patient's anticoagulation?
- AInitiate warfarin, continue the argatroban infusion, and discontinue argatroban once the international normalized ratio is between and
- Initiate warfarin, continue the argatroban infusion, and discontinue argatroban once the international normalized ratio exceeds Cevap
- CDiscontinue the argatroban infusion and initiate warfarin monotherapy with daily international normalized ratio monitoring
- DDiscontinue the argatroban infusion, initiate therapeutic enoxaparin, and overlap with warfarin until the international normalized ratio is between and
- EContinue argatroban monotherapy and delay the initiation of warfarin until the serotonin release assay is negative