A -year-old woman is evaluated in the nephrology clinic for a follow-up appointment. Three years ago, she underwent a deceased-donor renal transplantation for end-stage renal disease secondary to IgA nephropathy. Her maintenance immunosuppressive regimen includes tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. Five days ago, she was evaluated at an urgent care center for fever, cough, and a pulmonary infiltrate on chest radiography, and was prescribed a course of oral clarithromycin for community-acquired pneumonia. Today, she reports that her pulmonary symptoms have improved, but she complains of a new-onset headache and a mild, bilateral hand tremor. Her blood pressure is mmHg, which is significantly increased from her baseline of mmHg. Physical examination reveals a fine resting tremor in both hands but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of mg/dL; one month ago, it was mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Measure the serum tacrolimus trough levelCevap
- BInitiate high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
- CPerform a percutaneous renal allograft biopsy
- DOrder a renal duplex ultrasonography
- ERecommend over-the-counter ibuprofen for the headache and schedule a follow-up appointment