A -year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a -day history of severe diarrhea and abdominal cramping. He reports having to large, watery bowel movements daily, compared to a baseline of formed stool per day. The patient has a history of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer, for which he has been receiving pembrolizumab therapy for the past months. He has not traveled recently, and he has not taken any recent antibiotics. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . The abdomen is non-distended but diffusely tender to palpation without rebound or guarding. Laboratory evaluation shows:
Hemoglobin:
Leukocyte count:
Potassium:
Creatinine: (baseline )
Stool studies for bacterial pathogens and *Clostridioides difficile* have been sent. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's symptoms?
- Hold pembrolizumab and initiate intravenous methylprednisoloneCevap
- BContinue pembrolizumab and prescribe oral loperamide
- CPermanently discontinue pembrolizumab and administer intravenous infliximab
- DWithhold pembrolizumab and observe with intravenous fluids until stool testing results are finalized
- EContinue pembrolizumab and initiate empiric oral vancomycin