A 48-year-old man who underwent a deceased-donor kidney transplant 3 years ago is evaluated in the clinic. He reports a 3-day history of a white coating in his mouth. He denies dysphagia, odynophagia, or fever. His current maintenance immunosuppressive regimen includes tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. His allograft function has been stable with a baseline serum creatinine of . Today, his temperature is (). Physical examination reveals adherent white plaques on the buccal mucosa and tongue that can be easily scraped off. Laboratory studies obtained today show a serum creatinine of and a tacrolimus trough level of (target: ). The physician diagnoses oropharyngeal candidiasis and plans to prescribe a 14-day course of oral fluconazole. The patient also mentions he forgot to get his annual influenza vaccine and requests it during this visit. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AMaintain the current tacrolimus dose and administer the inactivated influenza vaccine
- BPreemptively increase the tacrolimus dose and administer the live-attenuated influenza vaccine
- Preemptively reduce the tacrolimus dose and administer the inactivated influenza vaccineCevap
- DTemporarily discontinue tacrolimus until the serum creatinine returns to
- EDelay fluconazole initiation and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy