A 47-year-old man is evaluated on the inpatient medical floor on hospital day 3. He was admitted for community-acquired pneumonia and was started on intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. His past medical history is notable for mild asthma and well-controlled hypertension. Over the past 24 hours, he has been afebrile. His current temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on ambient air. The patient reports feeling significantly better, has a normal mental status, and is tolerating a regular diet. He has supportive family members at home. In the context of high-value care, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AObserve the patient in the hospital for an additional 24 hours on oral antibiotics before discharge
- BObtain a repeat chest radiograph to ensure radiographic resolution of the infiltrate
- CObtain blood and sputum cultures to help narrow the subsequent antibiotic regimen
- Transition to an oral antibiotic regimen and discharge the patient homeCevap
- EArrange for home health services to administer intravenous antibiotics