A rapid response team is activated for a 73-year-old woman who collapsed on the orthopedic ward. She is on postoperative day 8 following a right total hip arthroplasty. Upon arrival, the patient is profoundly lethargic, responding only to painful stimuli with incomprehensible groans. She is severely diaphoretic and has mottled extremities. Vital signs are temperature 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure 62/40 mm Hg, heart rate 138/min, and respiratory rate 36/min. Pulse oximetry is 83% despite receiving 15 L/min of oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention up to the angle of the mandible. Lung auscultation is clear bilaterally. Bedside point-of-care ultrasound demonstrates a massively dilated right ventricle with apical sparing, paradoxical motion of the interventricular septum into the left ventricle during systole, and an underfilled left ventricle. No pericardial effusion is present. The team prepares to intervene. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in the stabilization of this patient?
- ATransport the patient immediately for computed tomography pulmonary angiography
- BAdminister a rapid 2-liter intravenous bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride
- Initiate a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrineCevap
- DAdminister intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and draw blood cultures
- EAdminister an induction dose of propofol and perform endotracheal intubation