A -year-old man with a history of alcohol-associated cirrhosis is evaluated in the hospital on day of admission. He was initially brought to the emergency department by his wife due to increasing lethargy, confusion, and an altered sleep-wake cycle over the preceding hours. On admission, he had not had a bowel movement for four days. Initial examination revealed marked disorientation to time and place, and pronounced asterixis. Laboratory studies on admission showed a serum ammonia level of (normal: ) and an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of . He was admitted and promptly started on oral lactulose.
Today, the patient is awake, alert, and fully oriented. He is interacting appropriately with the medical staff. He no longer exhibits asterixis. He reports having three soft bowel movements over the past hours. Vital signs are within normal limits. A repeat basic metabolic panel is unremarkable, his INR is , and his serum ammonia level is .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Maintain the current lactulose regimen without dosage modification.Cevap
- BIncrease the lactulose dosage to achieve a normal serum ammonia level.
- CAdminister fresh frozen plasma to correct the prolonged coagulation time.
- DObtain a non-contrast computed tomography scan of the head.
- EPrescribe oral lorazepam at bedtime to regulate the patient's sleep-wake cycle.