A 62-year-old female with stage IV renal cell carcinoma is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to worsening pain and confusion over the past three days. The patient has known widespread bone metastases. Her home pain regimen includes high-dose extended-release morphine and frequent doses of immediate-release morphine, which were recently escalated due to inadequately controlled back pain. On arrival, the patient is agitated and complains of severe pain "all over my body." The husband notes she has been having sudden, involuntary jerking movements of her arms and legs. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 138/85 mm Hg, a heart rate of 102/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air. Physical examination reveals diffuse hyperalgesia; she withdraws and cries out when the physician gently rests a stethoscope on her chest. Neurologic examination shows bilateral myoclonus but no focal motor or sensory weakness. Laboratory studies reveal a serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.1 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdminister intravenous naloxone
- BIncrease the dose of the current opioid medication
- Rotate to a different opioid analgesic and administer intravenous fluidsCevap
- DOrder emergent magnetic resonance imaging of the complete spine
- EInitiate palliative sedation with a continuous midazolam infusion