A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden, excruciating pain in his left leg that began 4 hours ago. He has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and recently stopped taking his prescribed rivaroxaban due to financial constraints. On physical examination, the left lower extremity is notably pale and cool to the touch from the mid-thigh distally. The left femoral pulse is palpable, but the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are absent. Handheld continuous-wave Doppler reveals no arterial signals in the left foot, but venous signals remain audible. Neurologic examination of the left lower extremity demonstrates profound loss of sensation extending up to the mid-calf and a new-onset inability to dorsiflex the foot. Intravenous heparin and adequate analgesia are administered immediately. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent open surgical embolectomyCevap
- BCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- CComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- DPrimary above-knee amputation
- EProphylactic lower extremity four-compartment fasciotomy