A 72-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for severe right leg pain that began abruptly 6 hours ago. His medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and atrial fibrillation. He admits to discontinuing his prescribed oral anticoagulant a month ago due to financial difficulties. On physical examination, the right leg is pale and cold from the mid-calf distally. The right femoral pulse is palpable, but the popliteal and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent. Which of the following physical examination findings, if present, would most strongly indicate that the limb has progressed to irreversible ischemia and that primary amputation, rather than revascularization, is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AInaudible arterial Doppler signals over the dorsalis pedis
- BSensory loss to pinprick isolated to the distal toes
- Rigidity and fixed contracture of the calf musclesCevap
- DDiffuse cyanotic mottling of the skin that blanches with pressure
- EExquisite pain elicited by passive extension of the toes