A 55-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss the results of a recent imaging study. She visited an urgent care clinic two weeks ago for acute right flank pain. An unenhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis showed a 3.0-mm nonobstructing right renal calculus and an incidental 3.2-cm homogenous, lipid-rich mass in the left adrenal gland. Her flank pain has since resolved. Her medical history is significant for hypertension diagnosed six months ago, which is currently managed with amlodipine. Her blood pressure today is 148/92 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m². Physical examination is unremarkable, with no abdominal striae, proximal muscle weakness, or hirsutism. Serum potassium is 3.8 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
- Overnight 1-mg dexamethasone suppression test, plasma free metanephrines, and plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratioCevap
- BCT-guided fine-needle aspiration of the adrenal mass
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen with intravenous contrast
- DRepeat unenhanced CT scan of the abdomen in 6 to 12 months
- E24-hour urine collection for fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines only