A 61-year-old female patient is evaluated in the intensive care unit due to deteriorating hemodynamics. She underwent a complex open ventral hernia repair with myofascial advancement flaps 24 hours ago. Over the past four hours, her urine output has steadily declined to a total of 15 mL. She is currently intubated and mechanically ventilated. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 82/48 mmHg, and pulse is 126/min. The patient is receiving a continuous infusion of norepinephrine, and her blood pressure remains low despite two 1-L boluses of intravenous lactated Ringer solution. The respiratory therapist reports that the peak airway pressures have gradually increased from 22 cm H2O to 45 cm H2O over the same time period. Physical examination reveals an extremely tense and distended abdomen with diffuse firmness to palpation. A transducer attached to the indwelling urinary catheter displays a pressure of 26 mmHg. Laboratory studies obtained 30 minutes ago show a hemoglobin of 10.4 g/dL and a lactate of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- Decompressive laparotomyCevap
- DTransfusion of packed red blood cells
- EIncrease the positive end-expiratory pressure on the ventilator