A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to severe, diffuse abdominal pain, nausea, and confusion for the past 24 hours. She has a history of a seizure disorder, for which she was recently started on phenytoin by her new primary care physician. She also reports that her urine has turned a dark, reddish-brown color since yesterday. Physical examination reveals tachycardia, diminished bowel sounds, and diffuse abdominal tenderness without rebound or guarding. Neurologic examination shows grade motor strength in the proximal upper extremities. Laboratory studies reveal a normal complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel. A urine test shows significantly elevated levels of porphobilinogen. Which of the following best describes the underlying genetic and molecular mechanism responsible for this patient's acute presentation?
- AToxic accumulation of a medication due to competitive inhibition of cytochrome P450 metabolic pathways.
- BMissense mutation resulting in a dominant negative structural protein that requires targeted genetic sequencing for diagnosis.
- Haploinsufficiency of a biosynthetic enzyme unmasked by transcriptional upregulation of a rate-limiting enzyme.Cevap
- DAutosomal recessive deficiency of a lysosomal hydrolase leading to toxic accumulation of metabolic byproducts.
- EIdiopathic autoimmune destruction of a physiologic receptor triggered by recent pharmacologic exposure.