A 74-year-old man arrives at the emergency department reporting the sudden onset of severe, unremitting pain in his right leg that began 2 hours ago. His past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He discontinued his prescribed oral anticoagulant three weeks ago due to financial constraints. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), heart rate of 112/min with an irregularly irregular rhythm, and blood pressure of 145/85 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals that the right lower extremity is pale and cold from the mid-thigh down. A right femoral pulse is palpable, but the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are absent on both palpation and continuous-wave Doppler ultrasound. The patient is unable to dorsiflex his right foot and reports profound numbness over the dorsum of the foot. The left lower extremity examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous heparin administration and emergent open embolectomyCevap
- BComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- CCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- DMeasurement of the ankle-brachial index
- EInitiation of an oral factor Xa inhibitor and admission to the medical ward