A 64-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to severe, crushing substernal chest pain that began 45 minutes ago while shoveling snow. The patient is pale, profusely diaphoretic, and appears in acute distress. Vital signs are temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F), heart rate 42/min, blood pressure 72/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate 22/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Physical examination reveals marked jugular venous distention. Auscultation of the chest demonstrates clear lung fields bilaterally with no murmurs or gallops. An immediate 12-lead electrocardiogram shows 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Administration of an intravenous normal saline bolusCevap
- BUrgent cardiology consultation for percutaneous coronary intervention
- COrdering a stat portable chest radiograph
- DAdministration of sublingual nitroglycerin
- EObtaining right-sided electrocardiogram leads