A -year-old man is evaluated following a screening colonoscopy that revealed a ulcerated mass in the ascending colon. He has no significant past medical history. His family history is notable for a father who died of colon cancer at age and a paternal aunt who was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at age . Biopsy of the colonic mass confirms invasive adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining of the tumor specimen demonstrates an absence of nuclear staining for MLH1 and PMS2 proteins, while MSH2 and MSH6 proteins maintain normal nuclear expression. Further molecular analysis of the tumor reveals wild-type and high microsatellite instability (MSI-H). Based on the underlying molecular pathogenesis of this patient's neoplasm, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Germline genetic sequencing of the MLH1 geneCevap
- BAssessment of the tumor for MLH1 promoter hypermethylation
- CGermline genetic sequencing of the APC gene
- DWhole-body positron emission tomography (PET) scan
- EImmediate prophylactic total abdominal colectomy