A -year-old male presents to the internal medicine clinic for management of elevated blood pressure. He was diagnosed with hypertension six months ago and is currently prescribed maximal tolerated doses of amlodipine and benazepril. He reports consistent adherence to his medications. Over the past few weeks, he has experienced occasional muscle spasms in his lower extremities and mild generalized weakness. He does not take any over-the-counter medications, supplements, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is mmHg, and heart rate is /min. Physical examination reveals a normal body habitus with no abdominal bruits, striae, or abnormal fat distribution. Laboratory testing shows a serum potassium level of mEq/L and a serum creatinine of mg/dL. The patient has never been prescribed diuretic therapy. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following diagnostic studies should be prioritized as the initial step to establish the underlying diagnosis?
- Plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activityCevap
- BComputed tomography scan of the abdomen
- CDuplex ultrasonography of the renal arteries
- D24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines
- EOvernight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test