A 62-year-old man is brought to the triage desk of the emergency department by his spouse. He is clutching his chest and reports that severe, crushing chest pain began abruptly 90 minutes ago while he was watching television. He also notes profound weakness, dizziness, and nausea. His past medical history is significant for essential hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Upon evaluation in the resuscitation bay, he is pale, diaphoretic, and lethargic. Vital signs are:
Temperature: 36.6°C (97.9°F)
Blood pressure: 78/48 mmHg
Pulse: 52/min
Respirations: 20/min
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air.
Physical examination reveals distended neck veins up to the angle of the mandible while sitting at a 45-degree angle. Auscultation of the lungs reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally without crackles or wheezes. Heart sounds are distant, and a regular bradycardia is appreciated with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The extremities are cool with delayed capillary refill.
A 12-lead electrocardiogram is rapidly obtained, demonstrating 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as 1.5-mm ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL.
Which of the following is the single most appropriate initial step in the hemodynamic stabilization of this patient?
- Administration of an intravenous isotonic crystalloid bolusCevap
- BAdministration of sublingual nitroglycerin
- CInitiation of a continuous intravenous norepinephrine infusion
- DObtaining an urgent computed tomography angiography of the chest
- EImmediate transfer to the cardiac intensive care unit for pulmonary artery catheterization