A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a painful, swollen boil on his left thigh. Physical examination shows a 3-cm erythematous, fluctuant skin abscess. He undergoes incision and drainage, and a sample is sent for culture. The culture grows Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to oxacillin and cefazolin. Which of the following is the primary molecular mechanism responsible for this organism's antibiotic resistance?
- ASecretion of an enzyme that hydrolyzes the antibiotic's structural ring
- BMutation changing the terminal amino acids of cell wall precursors
- CDownregulation of outer membrane porin channels
- Production of an altered penicillin-binding proteinCevap
- EUpregulation of transmembrane efflux pumps
Cevap
Production of an altered penicillin-binding protein
The correct answer identifies the production of an altered penicillin-binding protein. The patient's culture grew Staphylococcus aureus resistant to oxacillin, confirming an infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA resistance is primarily mediated by the acquisition of the staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec (SCCmec) containing the mecA gene. This gene encodes for PBP2a, a novel penicillin-binding protein with a significantly reduced binding affinity for all beta-lactam antibiotics, enabling the organism to synthesize peptidoglycan even in the presence of these drugs.
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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) resistance is mediated by the mecA gene, which encodes an altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a) with reduced affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics.