A 71-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden, agonizing pain in his left leg that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of essential hypertension and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, but he stopped taking his prescribed apixaban two months ago. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 148/88 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate 18/min. On physical examination, the left lower extremity is pale, mottled, and cold to the touch from the mid-thigh distally. The patient reports severe numbness over the dorsal aspect of his left foot and demonstrates mild weakness when asked to actively dorsiflex his toes. Handheld Doppler ultrasound evaluation of the left lower extremity reveals absent arterial signals in the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial arteries, but venous signals remain audible.
Which of the following are the most appropriate immediate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select exactly 2 options)
- Administration of an intravenous bolus of unfractionated heparinCevap
- Emergent consultation for open surgical embolectomyCevap
- CComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- DInitiation of catheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- EMeasurement of ankle-brachial index using a sphygmomanometer