A 59-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for intractable nausea, vomiting, and diffuse abdominal pain. She has a history of stage IV ovarian cancer with extensive peritoneal carcinomatosis that is no longer responsive to chemotherapy. Three days ago, her oncologist discussed her prognosis, and the patient expressed a clear desire to focus exclusively on comfort care and avoid further invasive procedures. Over the past 24 hours, she has been unable to tolerate any oral intake, and her last bowel movement was four days ago. She is awake, alert, and fully oriented. She reiterates her goals of care and explicitly refuses any surgical evaluation. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended, tympanic abdomen with high-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds. There is diffuse mild tenderness but no rebound or guarding. Plain radiography of the abdomen shows multiple dilated loops of small bowel with air-fluid levels and a paucity of gas in the colon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Subcutaneous octreotideCevap
- BIntravenous metoclopramide
- CComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with oral contrast
- DDischarge home with a prescription for oral prochlorperazine
- ERequest a psychiatric consultation to evaluate the patient's competence to refuse surgery