A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of progressive fatigue, decreased urine output, and a severe, deep aching pain in his right foot. Eighteen days ago, he was hospitalized for a non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction, which was treated with coronary angiography and drug-eluting stent placement via a right femoral artery approach. He was discharged on aspirin, clopidogrel, atorvastatin, ramipril, and bisoprolol.
On physical examination, his temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg, and heart rate is 82/min. The right first and second digits are cyanotic, cool, and exquisitely tender to palpation, though the right dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are full and symmetric to the left. A lace-like, non-blanching purplish discoloration is present over his bilateral lower extremities.
Laboratory studies show:
BUN: 54 mg/dL
Creatinine: 3.2 mg/dL (baseline 1.1 mg/dL)
WBC count: 11,200/mm³ with 12% eosinophils
Platelets: 210,000/mm³
Serum complement C3: 72 mg/dL (normal: 90-180 mg/dL)
Urinalysis reveals a specific gravity of 1.015, 1+ protein, 5-10 WBCs/hpf, and 1-2 RBCs/hpf. A Wright stain of the urine is positive for eosinophils. No granular or muddy brown casts are seen.
Based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- AAcute interstitial nephritis
- Cholesterol embolization syndromeCevap
- CContrast-induced acute tubular necrosis
- DHeparin-induced thrombocytopenia with thrombosis
- EPolyarteritis nodosa