A 45-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a three-day history of progressively worsening perianal pain. He reports that the pain is exacerbated by sitting and during bowel movements. His temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination reveals a 3-cm, highly tender, fluctuant, and erythematous mass located adjacent to the left posterior anal verge. There is no overlying tissue necrosis, and the patient has no signs of systemic toxicity or immunocompromise. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Incision and drainage of the massCevap
- BPrescription for oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis
- DDischarge with routine surgical follow-up in two weeks
- EFine-needle aspiration of the fluid collection
Cevap
Incision and drainage of the mass
This patient presents with classic signs of an uncomplicated perianal abscess (a tender, fluctuant, erythematous mass near the anal verge). The standard of care and most appropriate next step is prompt incision and drainage. This simple surgical procedure provides immediate relief of symptoms, evacuates the purulence, and prevents the infection from spreading into deeper perirectal spaces or causing systemic sepsis. While antibiotics may sometimes be added in high-risk patients (e.g., diabetics, immunocompromised), they are never a substitute for adequate surgical drainage.
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Anahtar Kavram
Prompt incision and drainage is the standard of care for uncomplicated perianal abscesses to achieve source control, provide symptom relief, and prevent deeper space infections.