A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance visit. She has no current symptoms and feels well. Her surgical history is significant for a total abdominal hysterectomy (removal of the uterus and cervix) with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy performed 4 years ago for symptomatic, heavy uterine bleeding caused by leiomyomas. Surgical pathology at that time confirmed benign leiomyomas. A detailed review of her past gynecologic history reveals that she had an abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) test 12 years ago, which led to a diagnosis of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) grade 3. She was treated with a loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) with clear margins. Subsequent Pap tests prior to her hysterectomy were normal. She has not had any screening tests since her hysterectomy. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination of the vaginal vault is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the preventive care of this patient?
- ADiscontinue all future lower genital tract screening.
- Perform vaginal cuff cytology and human papillomavirus (HPV) cotesting.Cevap
- CAdvise the patient to return for screening at age 65.
- DOrder a serum assay for human papillomavirus (HPV) antibodies.
- EPerform a screening transvaginal ultrasound.