A 52-year-old man is hospitalized for a proximal right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis. He is initially managed with a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. On admission, his laboratory evaluation was unremarkable, including a platelet count of 240,000/mm³. On day 5 of hospitalization, routine morning laboratory testing reveals a platelet count of 110,000/mm³. He reports feeling well and is hemodynamically stable. Physical examination shows no new signs of bleeding, petechiae, or expanding edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitorCevap
- BContinue unfractionated heparin and order a serotonin release assay
- CDiscontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate warfarin therapy
- DContinue unfractionated heparin and monitor the platelet count every 12 hours
- EDiscontinue unfractionated heparin and transfuse one unit of apheresed platelets
Cevap
Discontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitor
The clinical scenario presents a classic presentation of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) Type 2, which is characterized by an otherwise unexplained >50% drop in platelet count occurring 5 to 10 days after exposure to heparin products. The fundamental treatment evaluation step when HIT is suspected is the immediate discontinuation of all heparin products (including flushes) and the prompt initiation of an alternative, non-heparin anticoagulant. Direct thrombin inhibitors (such as argatroban or bivalirudin) or fondaparinux are the standard of care to prevent catastrophic arterial or venous thromboses.
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Anahtar Kavram
Monitoring for and managing Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)