A 52-year-old woman with advanced cervical cancer complicated by bilateral hydronephrosis is admitted to the hospital with intractable pelvic pain and rapidly progressing altered mental status. Over the past three days, her pain became increasingly difficult to control at home, prompting her outpatient physician to double her dose of sustained-release oral morphine. On evaluation, the patient is agitated, picking at her bedsheets, and disoriented to time and place. She exhibits sudden, involuntary jerking movements of her upper and lower extremities. When the physician gently palpates her arm to check her pulse, she screams, complaining that her skin "feels like it is on fire." Vital signs are temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse 110/min, respirations 16/min, and blood pressure 138/85 mm Hg. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Neurologic examination reveals diffuse hyperalgesia, hyperreflexia, and multifocal myoclonus. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of 3.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.1 mg/dL one month ago). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdminister intravenous haloperidol and maintain the current opioid regimen
- BAdminister intravenous naloxone
- CIncrease the dose of morphine to achieve adequate analgesia
- Rotate from morphine to intravenous fentanylCevap
- EOrder an emergency noncontrast CT scan of the head