A 48-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic reporting worsening fatigue, excessive sweating, and joint pain in his knees and hands over the past year. He mentions that his wedding ring no longer fits and he recently had to purchase shoes two sizes larger than his usual size. He has a history of newly diagnosed hypertension and obstructive sleep apnea. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 152/94 mm Hg, heart rate of 76/min, and respiratory rate of 14/min. Physical examination reveals coarse facial features, a prominent mandible, macroglossia, and enlarged, doughy hands. Visual field testing by confrontation is normal. A serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) level is ordered and returns markedly elevated for his age and sex. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the patient's diagnostic workup?
- Measurement of serum growth hormone following an oral glucose loadCevap
- BMagnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland
- CMeasurement of a single random serum growth hormone level
- DMeasurement of serum growth hormone-releasing hormone level
- EReferral for transsphenoidal surgical resection