Paramedics bring a 72-year-old woman to the emergency department after the staff at her assisted living facility noted non-bloody, bilious emesis and progressive lethargy since yesterday morning. She has a medical history significant for vascular dementia, coronary artery disease, and an open cholecystectomy a decade ago. Currently, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . On physical examination, the abdomen is asymmetric, visibly distended, and exquisitely tender with rebound and rigidity in the right lower quadrant. Further inspection reveals a , tense, erythematous mass palpable just inferior to the right inguinal ligament. Initial laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate of . Intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics are immediately initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- BBedside manual reduction of the groin mass
- Emergent surgical explorationCevap
- DPlacement of a nasogastric tube and serial abdominal examinations
- EAdmission to the medical intensive care unit for non-operative management