A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic due to a 4-week history of severe, crampy abdominal pain and 5 to 7 bloody bowel movements per day. He also reports tenesmus and a 3-kg (6.6-lb) weight loss during this time. His medical history is significant for severe plaque psoriasis that was refractory to high-potency topical corticosteroids and narrowband ultraviolet B phototherapy. Five months ago, his dermatologist initiated a new targeted biologic therapy, which has resulted in near-complete clearance of his skin lesions. His temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a soft abdomen with moderate tenderness in the left lower quadrant. No cutaneous plaques are visible. Flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals continuous mucosal erythema, edema, friability, and loss of the normal vascular pattern extending from the anal verge to the splenic flexure. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of the pharmacologic agent most likely responsible for this patient's current gastrointestinal condition?
- Binding and neutralization of interleukin-17ACevap
- BBlockade of the p40 subunit of interleukin-12 and interleukin-23
- CBinding and neutralization of soluble tumor necrosis factor-alpha
- DInhibition of phosphodiesterase-4 leading to increased intracellular cyclic AMP
- ECompetitive inhibition of Janus kinase signal transducers