A -year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a routine follow-up. He feels well and reports no new symptoms, including no changes in urine output or peripheral edema. His current medications include metformin twice daily, empagliflozin daily, lisinopril daily, and atorvastatin daily. Vital signs show a blood pressure of and a heart rate of . Physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results from the current and previous visits are shown below:
| Parameter | 12 Months Ago | 6 Months Ago | Current Visit |
|---|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin A1c | |||
| Serum creatinine | |||
| Estimated GFR | |||
| Serum potassium | |||
| Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio |
Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue metforminCevap
- BDiscontinue empagliflozin
- CDiscontinue lisinopril
- DOrder a renal ultrasound
- ERefer for arteriovenous fistula creation
Cevap
The most appropriate next step is to discontinue metformin.
The correct action is to discontinue metformin. Metformin is primarily renally excreted, and its accumulation in severe chronic kidney disease significantly increases the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis. Current prescribing guidelines mandate that metformin must be permanently discontinued when a patient's estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls below . Because this patient's eGFR has dropped to (CKD stage 4), removing this medication is the most urgent and appropriate next step.
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Anahtar Kavram
Metformin must be permanently discontinued when the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls below to prevent lactic acidosis.
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