A 62-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter due to progressive, severe lower abdominal pain and repeated episodes of bilious vomiting over the past 12 hours. The patient has been increasingly confused since this morning. She has a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), pulse is 126/min, blood pressure is 86/54 mmHg, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and a diaphoretic, lethargic patient. Abdominal examination is notable for a tense, erythematous, and exquisitely tender 4-cm mass in the right groin, located below the inguinal ligament. The abdomen is diffusely distended with guarding and rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³ with 15% bands and a serum lactate level of 4.2 mmol/L. Intravenous fluid resuscitation is immediately initiated. Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Immediate operative explorationCevap
- Administration of intravenous broad-spectrum antibioticsCevap
- CComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous contrast
- DBedside manual reduction of the groin mass under procedural sedation
- EAdmission to the surgical intensive care unit for serial abdominal examinations