A 42-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for a scheduled 4-week follow-up visit. One month ago, she was diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection after a positive interferon-gamma release assay during a routine occupational health screening. She was started on a 9-month course of daily isoniazid and pyridoxine. Today, the patient reports perfect adherence to her medication regimen. She feels well and specifically denies fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant pain, or dark-colored urine. She has no history of liver disease and takes no other medications. She does not consume alcohol.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals anicteric sclerae and a soft, non-tender abdomen with no palpable hepatomegaly.
Laboratory studies show:
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 115 U/L (Reference: 7–52 U/L)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 98 U/L (Reference: 10–40 U/L)
Alkaline phosphatase: 80 U/L (Reference: 40–120 U/L)
Total bilirubin: 0.9 mg/dL (Reference: 0.1–1.2 mg/dL)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Continue the current medication regimen and repeat liver function tests in 2 to 4 weeksCevap
- BDiscontinue isoniazid and initiate rifampin monotherapy
- CSuspend isoniazid therapy and obtain an abdominal ultrasound
- DContinue isoniazid and add rifampin to shorten the treatment course
- EDiscontinue isoniazid and admit the patient to the hospital for observation