A -year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up. She has a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (left ventricular ejection fraction of ). Her current daily medication regimen includes lisinopril, carvedilol, spironolactone, and digoxin. She has been stable on these medications for the past two years, with her most recent serum digoxin concentration measuring (therapeutic range for heart failure: ). During today's visit, an electrocardiogram reveals new-onset paroxysmal atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of . The physician decides to initiate amiodarone therapy for rhythm control and suppression of the atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding her current medication regimen?
- Reduce the digoxin dosage by and recheck the serum digoxin concentration in to weeksCevap
- BMaintain the current medication dosages and schedule a routine follow-up in months
- CSubstitute carvedilol with oral diltiazem to optimize atrioventricular nodal blockade
- DDiscontinue digoxin immediately and obtain an echocardiogram to assess for worsening systolic function
- EOrder a baseline prothrombin time and international normalized ratio to monitor for amiodarone-induced coagulopathy