A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital due to a new-onset diffuse rash and severe diarrhea. He underwent an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation for acute myeloid leukemia four weeks ago. His current medications include tacrolimus, acyclovir, and fluconazole. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Physical examination reveals a generalized maculopapular rash that prominently involves the palms and soles. His abdomen is mildly tender to palpation, and he reports having 6 to 8 large-volume watery stools daily over the past three days. Laboratory studies show markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase and total bilirubin levels. Which of the following best describes the primary immunopathologic mechanism responsible for this patient's current clinical presentation?
- Activation of donor-derived immunocompetent T lymphocytes against recipient cellular antigensCevap
- BActivation of recipient-derived cytotoxic T lymphocytes against the newly engrafted donor cells
- CWidespread deposition of circulating immune complexes in the microvasculature with complement activation
- DBinding of preformed recipient immunoglobulin G antibodies to donor vascular endothelial antigens
- EMassive release of preformed inflammatory mediators from mucosal and cutaneous mast cells